Dead to Sin

This post is the continuation of an earlier one. Read that first for a bit of context before coming here.  In our last post we covered an introduction to the topic of the nominative case in Greek, and consequently, the predicate nominative. We explained how we can identify a subject in Greek and gave a basic gist of how the predicate nominative functions with a provisional definition. If you have skipped that post and came straight here, then you are here for the refutation of the argument that 1 John 4:8 teaches pantheism. Although most of the grammar was reserved for the first post, I still must cover some minor points here. If you still wish to ignore the grammar, you can scroll to the end of this post to see a refutation of the argument :) Here, we will answer the questions left at the end of the last post to transition into the last bit of grammar: “ So how do we distinguish something like 1Jn 4:8 from our earlier examples? What are the various ways a predicate nominative...

 Does 1 John Teach Pantheism?  Recently, I came across an argument from some Muslims claiming that St. John, in his 1st Epistle, taught the damnable notion of Pantheism. Of course, this charge is meant to do nothing more than scandalize the faithful with the impious notion that sacred scripture does not teach monotheism. Here, I will offer a thorough response to the argument in two ways. Firstly, I will give an introductory guide to a bit of Greek Grammar in the first post, and then secondly, I will direct a concise refutation to the argument. To clarify, my intention is to teach here and then respond later. If you are not interested in my explanation of Greek grammar you are free to skip to the next post where I deal with the argument directly. Because the argument given by our Muslim friends requires a discourse about the "predicate nominative" in Greek, I will first offer an introductory overview of the concept here so that the reader may fully understand the response to t...